Tech Arsenal 1/Tech Arsenal (Arsenal Computer).ISO/tek-20/pools.zip/EL2.ASC

Text File | 1991-04-04 | 110KB | 3,014 lines

2A-1.1 What are the five principles that express the fundamental
purpose for which the amateur service rules are designed?
   A. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the
radio art, improvement of communication and technical skills,
increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and the enhancement of international goodwill
   B. Recognition of business communications, advancement of the
radio art, improvement of communication and business skills,
increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and the enhancement of international goodwill
   C. Recognition of emergency communications, preservation of
the earliest radio techniques, improvement of communication and
technical skills, maintain a pool of people familiar with early
tube-type equipment, and the enhancement of international
goodwill
   D. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the
radio art, improvement of communication and technical skills,
increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and the enhancement of a sense of patriotism

2A-1.2 Which of the following is ++++not++++ one of the basic principles
for which the ++++amateur service++++ rules are designed?
   A. Providing emergency communications
   B. Improvement of communication and technical skills
   C. Advancement of the radio art
   D. Enhancement of a sense of patriotism and nationalism

2A-1.3 The amateur service rules were designed to provide a radio
communications service that meets five fundamental purposes.
Which of the following is ++++not++++ one of those principles?
   A. Improvement of communication and technical skills
   B. Enhancement of international goodwill
   C. Increase the number of trained radio operators and
electronics experts
   D. Preserving the history of radio communications

2A-1.4 The amateur service rules were designed to provide a radio
communications service that meets five fundamental purposes. What
are those principles?
   A. Recognition of business communications, advancement of the
radio art, improvement of communication and business skills,
increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and the enhancement of international goodwill
   B. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the
radio art, improvement of communication and technical skills,
increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and the enhancement of international goodwill
   C. Recognition of emergency communications, preservation of
the earliest radio techniques, improvement of communication and
technical skills, maintain a pool of people familiar with early
tube-type equipment, and the enhancement of international
goodwill
   D. Recognition of emergency communications, advancement of the
radio art, improvement of communication and technical skills,
increase in the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and the enhancement of a sense of patriotism

2A-2.1 What is the definition of the ++++amateur service++++?
   A. A private radio service used for personal gain and public
benefit
   B. A public radio service used for public service
communications
   C. A radio communication service for the purpose of self-
training, intercommunication and technical investigations
   D. A private radio service intended for the furtherance of
commercial radio interests

2A-2.2 What name is given to the radio communication service that
is designed for self-training, intercommunication, and technical
investigation?
   A. The amateur service
   B. The Citizen's Radio Service
   C. The Experimenter's Radio Service
   D. The Maritime Radio Service

2A-3.1 What document contains the specific rules and regulations
governing the amateur service in the United States?
   A. Part 97 of title 47 CFR (Code of Federal Regulations)
   B. The Communications Act of 1934 (as amended)
   C. The Radio Amateur's Handbook
   D. The minutes of the International Telecommunication Union
meetings

2A-3.2 Which one of the following topics is ++++not++++ addressed in the
rules and regulations of the amateur service?
   A. Station operation standards
   B. Technical standards
   C. Providing emergency communications
   D. Station construction standards

2A-4.1 What is the definition of an ++++amateur operator++++?
   A. A person who has not received any training in radio
operations
   B. A person holding a written authorization to be the control
operator of an amateur station
   C. A person who performs private radio communications for hire
   D. A trainee in a commercial radio station

2A-4.2 What term describes a person holding a written
authorization to be the control operator of an amateur station?
   A. A Citizen Radio operator
   B. A Personal Radio operator
   C. A Radio Service operator
   D. An amateur operator

****One question must be from the following:****

2A-5.1 What is the portion of an amateur operator/primary station
license that conveys operator privileges?
   A. The verification section
   B. Form 610
   C. The operator license
   D. The station license

2A-5.2 What authority is derived from an operator/primary station
license?
   A. The authority to operate any shortwave radio station
   B. The authority to be the control operator of an amateur
station
   C. The authority to have an amateur station at a particular
location
   D. The authority to transmit on either amateur or Class D
citizen's band frequencies

2A-6.1 What authority is derived from a written authorization for
an amateur station?
   A. The authority to use specified operating frequencies
   B. The authority to operate an amateur station
   C. The authority to enforce FCC Rules when violations are
noted on the part of other operators
   D. The authority to transmit on either amateur or Class D
citizen's band frequencies

2A-6.2 What part of your amateur license gives you authority to
have an amateur station?
   A. The operator license
   B. The FCC Form 610
   C. The station license
   D. An amateur operator/primary station license does not
specify a station location

2A-7.1 What is an ++++amateur station++++?
   A. A licensed radio station engaged in broadcasting to the
public in a limited and well-defined area
   B. A radio station used to further commercial radio interests
   C. A private radio service used for personal gain and public
service
   D. A station in an amateur service consisting of the apparatus
necessary for carrying on radio communications

2A-8.1 Who is a ++++control operator++++?
   A. An amateur operator designated by the licensee of a station
to be responsible for the transmissions from that station to
assure compliance with the FCC rules
   B. A person, either licensed or not, who controls the
emissions of an amateur station
   C. An unlicensed person who is speaking over an amateur
station's microphone while a licensed person is present
   D. A government official who comes to an amateur station to
take control for test purposes

2A-8.2 If you designate another amateur operator to be
responsible for the transmissions from your station, what is the
other operator called?
   A. Auxiliary operator
   B. Operations coordinator
   C. Third party
   D. Control operator

2A-9.1 List the five United States amateur operator/primary
station license classes in order of increasing privileges.
   A. Novice, General, Technician, Advanced, Amateur Extra
   B. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Digital
   C. Novice, Technician, General, Amateur, Extra
   D. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced, Amateur Extra

2A-9.2 (This question has been withdrawn.)
Which US amateur operator license is considered to be the
"entry level" or "beginner's" license?
   A. The Novice class license
   B. The CB license
   C. The Technician class license
   D. The Amateur class license

2A-9.3 What is the license class immediately above Novice class?
   A. The Digital class license
   B. The Technician class license
   C. The General class license
   D. The Experimenter's class license

2A-10.1 (This question has been withdrawn.)
What frequencies are available in the amateur 80-meter
wavelength band for a control operator holding a Novice class
operator license?
   A. 3500 to 4000 kHz
   B. 3700 to 3750 kHz
   C. 7100 to 7150 kHz
   D. 7000 to 7300 kHz

2A-10.2 What frequencies are available in the amateur 40-meter
wavelength band for a control operator holding a Novice class
operator license in ITU Region 2?
   A. 3500 to 4000 kHz
   B. 3700 to 3750 kHz
   C. 7100 to 7150 kHz
   D. 7000 to 7300 kHz

2A-10.3 What frequencies are available in the amateur 15-meter
wavelength band for a control operator holding a Novice class
operator license?
   A. 21.100 to 21.200 MHz
   B. 21.000 to 21.450 MHz
   C. 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
   D. 28.100 to 28.200 MHz

2A-10.4 What frequencies are available in the amateur 10-meter
wavelength band for a control operator holding a Novice class
operator license?
   A. 28.000 to 29.700 MHz
   B. 28.100 to 28.300 MHz
   C. 28.100 to 28.500 MHz
   D. 28.300 to 28.500 MHz

2A-10.5 What frequencies are available in the amateur 220-MHz
band for a control operator holding a Novice class operator
license in ITU Region 2?
   A. 225.0 to 230.5 MHz
   B. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz
   C. 224.1 to 225.1 MHz
   D. 222.2 to 224.0 MHz

2A-10.6 What frequencies are available in the amateur 1270-MHz
band for a control operator holding a Novice class operator
license?
   A. 1260 to 1270 MHz
   B. 1240 to 1300 MHz
   C. 1270 to 1295 MHz
   D. 1240 to 1246 MHz

2A-10.7 If you are operating your amateur station on 3725 kHz, in
what meter band are you operating?
   A. 80 meters
   B. 40 meters
   C. 15 meters
   D. 10 meters

2A-10.8 If you are operating your amateur station on 7125 kHz, in
what meter band are you operating?
   A. 80 meters
   B. 40 meters
   C. 15 meters
   D. 10 meters

2A-10.9 If you are operating your amateur station on 21150 kHz,
in what meter band are you operating?
   A. 80 meters
   B. 40 meters
   C. 15 meters
   D. 10 meters

2A-10.10 If you are operating your amateur station on 28150 kHz,
in what meter band are you operating?
   A. 80 meters
   B. 40 meters
   C. 15 meters
   D. 10 meters

2A-11.1 Who is eligible to obtain a US amateur ++++operator/primary
station++++ license?
   A. Anyone except a representative of a foreign government
   B. Only a citizen of the United States
   C. Anyone
   D. Anyone except an employee of the United States Government

2A-11.2 Who is ++++not++++ eligible to obtain a US amateur
++++operator/primary station++++ license?
   A. Any citizen of a country other than the United States
   B. A representative of a foreign government
   C. No one
   D. An employee of the United States Government

2A-12.1 What FCC examination elements are required for a Novice
class license?
   A. Elements 1(A) and 2(A)
   B. Elements 1(A) and 3(A)
   C. Elements 1(A) and 2
   D. Elements 2 and 4

2A-12.2 What is an FCC Element 1(A) examination intended to
prove?
   A. The applicant's ability to send and receive texts in the
international Morse code at not less than 5 words per minute
   B. The applicant's ability to send and receive texts in the
international Morse code at not less than 13 words per minute
   C. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and
regulations
   D. The applicant's ability to recognize Novice frequency
assignments and operating modes

2A-12.3 What is an FCC Element 2 examination?
   A. A test of the applicant's ability to send and receive Morse
code at 5 words per minute
   B. The written examination concerning the privileges of a
Technician class operator license
   C. A test of the applicant's ability to recognize Novice
frequency assignments
   D. The written examination concerning the privileges of a
Novice class operator license

2A-13.1 Who is eligible to obtain an FCC-issued written
authorization for an amateur station?
   A. A licensed amateur operator
   B. Any unlicensed person, except an agent of a foreign
government
   C. Any unlicensed person, except an employee of the United
States Government
   D. Any unlicensed United States Citizen

2A-14.1 Why is an amateur operator required to furnish the FCC
with a current mailing address served by the US Postal service?
   A. So the FCC has a record of the location of each amateur
station
   B. In order to comply with the Commission's rules and so the
FCC can correspond with the licensee
   C. So the FCC can send license-renewal notices
   D. So the FCC can compile a list for use in a call sign
directory

2A-15.1 Which one of the following call signs is a valid US
amateur call?
   A. UA4HAK
   B. KBL7766
   C. KA9OLS
   D. BY7HY

2A-15.2 Which one of the following call signs is a valid US
amateur call?
   A. CE2FTF
   B. G3GVA
   C. UA1ZAM
   D. AA2Z

2A-15.3 Which one of the following call signs is ++++not++++ a valid US
amateur call?
   A. KDV5653
   B. WA1DVU
   C. KA5BUG
   D. NT0Z

2A-15.4 What letters may be used for the first letter in a valid
US amateur call sign?
   A. K, N, U and W
   B. A, K, N and W
   C. A, B, C and D
   D. A, N, V and W

2A-15.5 Excluding special-event call signs that may be issued by
the FCC, what numbers may be used in a valid US call sign?
   A. Any double-digit number, 10 through 99
   B. Any double-digit number, 22 through 45
   C. Any single digit, 1 though 9
   D. A single digit, 0 through 9

2A-16.1  Your Novice license was issued on November 1, 1988. When
will it expire?
   A. On the date specified on the license
   B. November 30, 1998
   C. November 1, 1993
   D. November 1, 1990

2A-17.1 What does the term ++++emission++++ mean?
   A. RF signals transmitted from a radio station
   B. Signals refracted by the E layer
   C. Filter out the carrier of a received signal
   D. Baud rate

2A-17.2 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use on the 80-meter wavelength band?
   A. CW only
   B. Data only
   C. RTTY only
   D. Phone only

2A-17.3 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use in the 40-meter wavelength band?
   A. CW only
   B. Data only
   C. RTTY only
   D. Phone only

2A-17.4 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use in the 15-meter wavelength band?
   A. CW only
   B. Data only
   C. RTTY only
   D. Phone only

2A-17.5 (This question has been withdrawn.)
What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use from 3700 to 3750 kHz?
   A. Phone only
   B. CW and phone
   C. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on those
frequencies
   D. CW only

2A-17.6 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use from 7100 to 7150 kHz in ITU Region 2?
   A. CW and data
   B. Phone
   C. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on those
frequencies
   D. CW only

2A-17.7 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use on frequencies from 21.1 to 21.2 MHz?
   A. CW and data only
   B. CW and phone only
   C. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on those
frequencies
   D. CW only

2A-17.8 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use on frequencies from 28.1 to 28.3 MHz?
   A. All authorized amateur emission privileges
   B. Data or phone only
   C. CW, RTTY and data
   D. CW and phone only

2A-17.9 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use on frequencies from 28.3 to 28.5 MHz?
   A. All authorized amateur emission privileges
   B. CW and data only
   C. CW and single-sideband phone only
   D. Data and phone only

2A-17.10 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use on the amateur 220-MHz band in ITU Region 2?
   A. CW and phone only
   B. CW and data only
   C. Data and phone only
   D. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on 220
MHz

2A-17.11 What emission types are Novice control operators
permitted to use on the amateur 1270-MHz band?
   A. Data and phone only
   B. CW and data only
   C. CW and phone only
   D. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on 1270
MHz

2A-17.12 On what frequencies in the 10-meter wavelength band may
a Novice control operator use single-sideband phone?
   A. 3700 to 3750 kHz
   B. 7100 to 7150 kHz
   C. 21100 to 21200 kHz
   D. 28300 to 28500 kHz

2A-17.13 On what frequencies in the 1.25-meter wavelength band in
ITU Region 2 may a Novice control operator use FM phone emission?
   A. 28.3 to 28.5 MHz
   B. 144.0 to 148.0 MHz
   C. 222.1 to 223.91 MHz
   D. 1240 to 1270 MHz

2A-18.1 What amount of output transmitting power may a Novice
class control operator use when operating below 30 MHz?
   A. 200 watts input
   B. 250 watts output
   C. 1500 watts PEP output
   D. The minimum legal power necessary to carry out the desired
communications

2A-18.2 What is the maximum transmitting power ever permitted to
be used by an amateur station transmitting in the 80, 40 and 15-
meter Novice bands?
   A. 75 watts PEP output
   B. 100 watts PEP output
   C. 200 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

2A-18.3 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station transmitting on 3725 kHz?
   A. 75 watts PEP output
   B. 100 watts PEP output
   C. 200 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

2A-18.4 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station transmitting on 7125 kHz?
   A. 75 watts PEP output
   B. 100 watts PEP output
   C. 200 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

2A-18.5 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station transmitting on 21.125 MHz?
   A. 75 watts PEP output
   B. 100 watts PEP output
   C. 200 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

2A-19.1 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station with a Novice control operator transmitting on
28.125 MHz?
   A. 75 watts PEP output
   B. 100 watts PEP output
   C. 200 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

2A-19.2 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station with a Novice control operator transmitting in
the amateur 10-meter wavelength band?
   A. 25 watts PEP output
   B. 200 watts PEP output
   C. 1000 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

2A-19.3 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station with a Novice control operator transmitting in
the amateur 220-MHz band?
   A. 5 watts PEP output
   B. 10 watts PEP output
   C. 25 watts PEP output
   D. 200 watts PEP output

2A-19.4 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station with a Novice control operator transmitting in
the amateur 1270-MHz band?
   A. 5 milliwatts PEP output
   B. 500 milliwatts PEP output
   C. 1 watt PEP output
   D. 5 watts PEP output

2A-19.5 What amount of transmitting power may an amateur station
with a Novice control operator use in the amateur 220-MHz band?
   A. Not less than 5 watts PEP output
   B. The minimum legal power necessary to maintain reliable
communications
   C. Not more than 50 watts PEP output
   D. Not more than 200 watts PEP output

2A-20.1 What term is used to describe narrow-band direct-printing
telegraphy emissions?
   A. Teleport communications
   B. Direct communications
   C. RTTY communications
   D. Third-party communications

2A-20.2 What term is used to describe telemetry, telecommand and
computer communications emissions?
   A. Teleport communications
   B. Direct communications
   C. Data communications
   D. Third-party communications

2A-20.3 On what frequencies in the 10-meter wavelength band are
Novice control operators permitted to transmit RTTY?
   A. 28.1 to 28.5 MHz
   B. 28.0 to 29.7 MHz
   C. 28.1 to 28.2 MHz
   D. 28.1 to 28.3 MHz

2A-21.1 Who is held responsible for the proper operation of an
amateur station?
   A. Only the control operator
   B. Only the station licensee
   C. Both the control operator and the station licensee
   D. The person who owns the property where the station is
located

2A-21.2 You allow another amateur operator to use your amateur
station. What are your responsibilities, as the station licensee?
   A. You and the other amateur operator are equally responsible
for the proper operation of your station
   B. Only the control operator is responsible for the proper
operation of the station
   C. As the station licensee, you must be at the control point
of your station whenever it is operated
   D. You must notify the FCC when another amateur will be the
control operator of your station

2A-21.3 What is your primary responsibility as the station
licensee?
   A. You must permit any licensed amateur operator to operate
your station at any time upon request
   B. You must be present whenever the station is operated
   C. You must notify the FCC in writing whenever another amateur
operator will act as the control operator
   D. You are responsible for the proper operation of the station
for which you are licensed

2A-21.4 If you are the licensee of an amateur station when are
you ++++not++++ responsible for its proper operation?
   A. Only when another licensed amateur is the control operator
   B. The licensee is responsible for the proper operation of the
station for which he or she is licensed
   C. Only after notifying the FCC in writing that another
licensed amateur will assume responsibility for the proper
operation of your station
   D. Only when your station is in repeater operation

2A-22.1 When must an amateur station have a control operator?
   A. A control operator is only required for training purposes
   B. Whenever the station receiver is operated
   C. Whenever the station is transmitting
   D. A control operator is not required

2A-22.2 Another amateur gives you permission to use her amateur
station. What are your responsibilities, as the control operator?
   A. Both you and she are equally responsible for the proper
operation of her station
   B. Only the station licensee is responsible for the proper
operation of the station, not you the control operator
   C. You must be certain the station licensee has given proper
FCC notice that you will be the control operator
   D. You must inspect all antennas and related equipment to
ensure they are working properly

2A-23.1 Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?
   A. Any person over 21 years of age
   B. Any properly licensed amateur operator that is designated
by the station licensee
   C. Any licensed amateur operator with an Advanced class
license or higher
   D. Any person over 21 years of age with a General class
license or higher

2A-24.1 Where must an amateur operator be when he or she is
performing the duties of control operator?
   A. Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter
   B. At the control point of the amateur station
   C. At the station entrance, to control entry to the room
   D. Within sight of the station monitor, to view the output
spectrum of the transmitter

2A-25.1 Where must you keep your amateur operator license when
you are operating a station?
   A. Your original operator license must always be posted in
plain view
   B. Your original operator license must always be taped to the
inside front cover of your station log
   C. You must have the original or a photocopy of your operator
license in your possession
   D. You must have the original or a photocopy of your operator
license posted at your primary station location. You need not
have the original license nor a copy in your possession to
operate another station

2A-26.1 Where must you keep your written authorization for an
amateur station?
   A. Your original station license must always be taped to the
inside front cover of your station log
   B. Your original station license must always be posted in
plain view
   C. You must post the original or a photocopy of your station
license at the main entrance to the transmitter building
   D. The original or a photocopy of the written authorization
for an amateur station must be retained at the station

2A-27.1 How often must an amateur station be identified?
   A. At the beginning of the contact and at least every ten
minutes during a contact
   B. At least once during each transmission
   C. At least every ten minutes during a contact and at the end
of the contact
   D. Every 15 minutes during a contact and at the end of the
contact

2A-27.2 As an amateur operator, how should you correctly identify
your station?
   A. With the name and location of the control operator
   B. With the station call sign
   C. With the call of the control operator, even when he or she
is visiting another radio amateur's station
   D. With the name and location of the station licensee,
followed by the two-letter designation of the nearest FCC Field
Office

2A-27.3 What station identification, if any, is required at the
beginning of communication?
   A. The operator originating the contact must transmit both
call signs
   B. No identification is required at the beginning of the
contact
   C. Both operators must transmit their own call signs
   D. Both operators must transmit both call signs

2A-27.4 What station identification, if any, is required at the
end of a communication?
   A. Both stations must transmit their own call sign, assuming
they are FCC-licensed
   B. No identification is required at the end of the contact
   C. The station originating the contact must always transmit
both call signs
   D. Both stations must transmit their own call sign followed by
a two-letter designator for the nearest FCC field office

2A-27.5 What do the FCC rules for amateur station identification
generally require?
   A. Each amateur station shall give its call sign at the
beginning of each communication, and every ten minutes or less
during a communication
   B. Each amateur station shall give its call sign at the end of
each communication, and every ten minutes or less during a
communication
   C. Each amateur station shall give its call sign at the
beginning of each communication, and every five minutes or less
during a communication
   D. Each amateur station shall give its call sign at the end of
each communication, and every five minutes or less during a
communication

2A-27.6 What is the fewest number of times you must transmit your
amateur station identification during a 25 minute QSO?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2A-27.7 What is the longest period of time during a QSO that an
amateur station does not need to transmit its station
identification?
   A. 5 minutes
   B. 10 minutes
   C. 15 minutes
   D. 20 minutes

2A-28.1 With which amateur stations may an FCC-licensed amateur
station communicate?
   A. All amateur stations
   B. All public noncommercial radio stations unless prohibited
by the station's government
   C. Only with US amateur stations
   D. All amateur stations, unless prohibited by the amateur's
government

2A-28.2 With which non-amateur stations may an FCC-licensed
amateur station communicate?
   A. No non-amateur stations
   B. All such stations
   C. Only those authorized by the FCC
   D. Only those who use the International Morse code

2A-29.1 When must the licensee of an amateur station in portable
or mobile operation notify the FCC?
   A. One week in advance if the operation will last for more
than 24 hours
   B. FCC notification is not required for portable or mobile
operation
   C. One week in advance if the operation will last for more
than a week
   D. One month in advance of any portable or mobile operation

2A-29.2 When may you operate your amateur station at a location
within the United States, its territories or possessions other
than the one listed on your station license?
   A. Only during times of emergency
   B. Only after giving proper notice to the FCC
   C. During an emergency or an FCC-approved emergency
preparedness drill
   D. Whenever you want to

2A-30.1 When are communications pertaining to the business or
commercial affairs of any party permitted in the amateur service?
   A. Only when the immediate safety of human life or immediate
protection of property is threatened
   B. There are no rules against conducting business
communications in the amateur service
   C. No business communications of any kind are ever permitted
in the amateur service
   D. Business communications are permitted between the hours of
9 AM to 5 PM, only on weekdays

2A-30.2 You wish to obtain an application for membership in the
American Radio Relay League. When would you be permitted to send
an Amateur Radio message requesting the application?
   A. At any time, since the ARRL is a not-for-profit
organization
   B. Never. This would facilitate the commercial affairs of the
ARRL
   C. Only during normal business hours, between 9 AM and 5 PM
   D. At any time, since there are no rules against conducting
business communications in the amateur service

2A-30.3 On your way home from work you decide to order pizza for
dinner. When would you be permitted to use the autopatch on your
radio club repeater to order the pizza?
   A. At any time, since you will not profit from the
communications
   B. Only during normal business hours, between 9 AM and 5 PM
   C. At any time, since there are no rules against conducting
business communications in the amateur service
   D. Never. This would facilitate the commercial affairs of a
business

2A-31.1 When may an FCC-licensed amateur operator communicate
with an amateur operator in a foreign country?
   A. Only when the foreign operator uses English as his primary
language
   B. All the time, except on 28.600 to 29.700 MHz
   C. Only when a third party agreement exists between the US and
the foreign country
   D. At any time unless prohibited by either the US or the
foreign government

2A-32.1 When may an amateur station be used to transmit messages
for hire?
   A. Under no circumstances may an amateur station be hired to
transmit messages
   B. Modest payment from a non-profit charitable organization is
permissible
   C. No money may change hands, but a radio amateur may be
compensated for services rendered with gifts of equipment or
services rendered as a returned favor
   D. All payments received in return for transmitting messages
by Amateur Radio must be reported to the IRS

2A-32.2 When may the control operator be paid to transmit
messages from an amateur station?
   A. The control operator may be paid if he or she works for a
public service agency such as the Red Cross
   B. The control operator may not be paid under any
circumstances
   C. The control operator may be paid if he or she reports all
income earned from operating an amateur station to the IRS as
receipt of tax-deductible contributions
   D. The control operator may accept compensation if he or she
works for a club station during the period in which the station
is transmitting telegraphy practice or information bulletins if
certain exacting conditions are met

2A-33.1 When is an amateur operator permitted to broadcast
information intended for the general public?
   A. Amateur operators are not permitted to broadcast
information intended for the general public
   B. Only when the operator is being paid to transmit the
information
   C. Only when such transmissions last less than 1 hour in any
24-hour period
   D. Only when such transmissions last longer than 15 minutes

2A-34.1 What is ++++third-party communications++++?
   A. A message passed from the control operator of an amateur
station to another control operator on behalf of another person
   B. Public service communications handled on behalf of a minor
political party
   C. Only messages that are formally handled through Amateur
Radio channels
   D. A report of highway conditions transmitted over a local
repeater

2A-34.2 Who is a ++++third party++++ in amateur communications?
   A. The amateur station that breaks into a two-way contact
between two other amateur stations
   B. Any person for whom a message is passed through amateur
communication channels other than the control operators of the
two stations handling the message
   C. A shortwave listener monitoring a two-way amateur
communication
   D. The control operator present when an unlicensed person
communicates over an amateur station

2A-34.3 When is an amateur operator permitted to transmit a
message to a foreign country for a third party?
   A. Anytime
   B. Never
   C. Anytime, unless there is a third-party communications
agreement between the US and the foreign government
   D. When there is a third-party communications agreement
between the US and the foreign government, or when the third
party is eligible to be the control operator of the station

2A-35.1 Is an amateur station permitted to transmit music?
   A. The transmission of music is not permitted in the amateur
service
   B. When the music played produces no dissonances or spurious
emissions
   C. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission
   D. Only above 1280 MHz

2A-36.1 Is the use of codes or ciphers where the intent is to
obscure the meaning permitted during a two-way communication in
the amateur service?
   A. Codes and ciphers are permitted during ARRL-sponsored
contests
   B. Codes and ciphers are permitted during nationally declared
emergencies
   C. The transmission of codes and ciphers where the intent is
to obscure the meaning is not permitted in the amateur service
   D. Codes and ciphers are permitted above 1280 MHz

2A-36.2 When is an operator in the amateur service permitted to
use abbreviations that are intended to obscure the meaning of the
message?
   A. Only during ARRL-sponsored contests
   B. Only on frequencies above 222.5 MHz
   C. Only during a declared communications emergency
   D. Abbreviations that are intended to obscure the meaning of
the message may never be used in the amateur service

2A-37.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may the control
operator cause ++++false or deceptive signals or communications++++ to be
transmitted?
   A. Under no circumstances
   B. When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt"
exercise
   C. When playing a harmless "practical joke" without causing
interference to other stations that are not involved
   D. When you need to obscure the meaning of transmitted
information to ensure secrecy

2A-37.2 If an amateur operator transmits the word "MAYDAY" when
no actual emergency has occurred, what is this called?
   A. A traditional greeting in May
   B. An Emergency Action System test transmission
   C. False or deceptive signals
   D. "MAYDAY" has no significance in an emergency situation

2A-38.1 When may an amateur station transmit unidentified
communications?
   A. A transmission need not be identified if it is restricted
to brief tests not intended for reception by other parties
   B. A transmission need not be identified when conducted on a
clear frequency or "dead band" where interference will not occur
   C. An amateur operator may never transmit unidentified
communications
   D. A transmission need not be identified unless two-way
communications or third-party communications handling are
involved

2A-38.2 What is the meaning of the term ++++unidentified radio
communications or signals++++?
   A. Radio communications in which the transmitting station's
call sign is transmitted in modes other than CW and voice
   B. Radio communications approaching a receiving station from
an unknown direction
   C. Radio communications in which the operator fails to
transmit his or her name and QTH
   D. Radio communications in which the station identification is
not transmitted

2A-38.3 What is the term used to describe a transmission from an
amateur station that does not transmit the required station
identification?
   A. Unidentified communications or signals
   B. Reluctance modulation
   C. N0/N emission
   D. Tactical communication

2A-39.1 When may an amateur operator willfully or maliciously
interfere with a radio communication or signal?
   A. You may jam another person's transmissions if that person
is not operating in a legal manner
   B. You may interfere with another station's signals if that
station begins transmitting on a frequency already occupied by
your station
   C. You may never willfully or maliciously interfere with
another station's transmissions
   D. You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because
it is unavoidable during crowded band conditions

2A-39.2 What is the meaning of the term ++++malicious interference++++?
   A. Accidental interference
   B. Intentional interference
   C. Mild interference
   D. Occasional interference

2A-39.3 What is the term used to describe an Amateur Radio
transmission that is intended to disrupt other communications in
progress?
   A. Interrupted CW
   B. Malicious interference
   C. Transponded signals
   D. Unidentified transmissions

2A-40.1 As an amateur operator, you receive an ++++Official Notice of
Violation++++ from the FCC. How promptly must you respond?
   A. Within 90 days
   B. Within 30 days
   C. As specified in the Notice
   D. The next day

2A-40.2 If you were to receive a voice distress signal from a
station on a frequency outside your operator privileges, what
restrictions would apply to assisting the station in distress?
   A. You would not be allowed to assist the station because the
frequency of its signals were outside your operator privileges
   B. You would be allowed to assist the station only if your
signals were restricted to the nearest frequency band of your
privileges
   C. You would be allowed to assist the station on a frequency
outside of your operator privileges only if you used
international Morse code
   D. You would be allowed to assist the station on a frequency
outside of your operator privileges using any means of radio
communications at your disposal

2A-40.3 If you were in a situation where normal communication
systems were disrupted due to a disaster, what restrictions would
apply to essential communications you might provide in connection
with the immediate safety of human life?
   A. You would not be allowed to communicate at all except to
the FCC Engineer in Charge of the area concerned
   B. You would be restricted to communications using only the
emissions and frequencies authorized to your operator privileges
   C. You would be allowed to communicate on frequencies outside
your operator privileges only if you used international Morse
code
   D. You would be allowed to use any means of radio
communication at your disposal

2B-1-1.1 What is the most important factor to consider when
selecting a transmitting frequency within your authorized
subband?
   A. The frequency should not be in use by other amateurs
   B. You should be able to hear other stations on the frequency
to ensure that someone will be able to hear you
   C. Your antenna should be resonant at the selected frequency
   D. You should ensure that the SWR on the antenna feed line is
high enough at the selected frequency

2B-1-1.2 You wish to contact an amateur station more than 1500
miles away on a summer afternoon. Which band is most likely to
provide a successful contact?
   A. The 80- or 40-meter wavelength bands
   B. The 40- or 15-meter wavelength bands
   C. The 15- or 10-meter wavelength bands
   D. The 1-1/4 meter or 23-centimeter wavelength bands

2B-1-1.3 How can on-the-air transmitter tune-up be kept as short
as possible?
   A. By using a random wire antenna
   B. By tuning up on 40 meters first, then switching to the
desired band
   C. By tuning the transmitter into a dummy load
   D. By using twin lead instead of coaxial-cable feed lines

2B-1-2.1 You are having a QSO with your uncle in Pittsburgh when
you hear an emergency call for help on the frequency you are
using. What should you do?
   A. Inform the station that the frequency is in use
   B. Direct the station to the nearest emergency net frequency
   C. Call your local Civil Preparedness Office and inform them
of the emergency
   D. Immediately stand by to copy the emergency communication

2B-2-1.1 What is the format of a standard Morse code CQ call?
   A. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" three times, followed
by the procedural signal "DE", followed by your call three times
   B. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" three times, followed
by the procedural signal "DE", followed by your call one time
   C. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" ten times, followed by
the procedural signal "DE", followed by your call one time
   D. Transmit the procedural signal "CQ" continuously until
someone answers your call

2B-2-1.2 How should you answer a Morse code CQ call?
   A. Send your call sign four times
   B. Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by the
procedural signal "DE", followed by your call sign twice
   C. Send the other station's call sign once, followed by the
procedural signal "DE", followed by your call sign four times
   D. Send your call sign followed by your name, station location
and a signal report

2B-2-2.1 At what telegraphy speed should a "CQ" message be
transmitted?
   A. Only speeds below five WPM
   B. The highest speed your keyer will operate
   C. Any speed at which you can reliably receive
   D. The highest speed at which you can control the keyer

2B-2-3.1 What is the meaning of the Morse code character AR?
   A. Only the called station transmit
   B. All received correctly
   C. End of transmission
   D. Best regards

2B-2-3.2 What is the meaning of the Morse code character SK?
   A. Received some correctly
   B. Best regards
   C. Wait
   D. End of contact

2B-2-3.3 What is the meaning of the Morse code character BT?
   A. Double dash "="
   B. Fraction bar "/"
   C. End of contact
   D. Back to you

2B-2-3.4 What is the meaning of the Morse code character DN?
   A. Double dash "="
   B. Fraction bar "/"
   C. Done now (end of contact)
   D. Called station only transmit

2B-2-3.5 What is the meaning of the Morse code character KN?
   A. Fraction bar "/"
   B. End of contact
   C. Called station only transmit
   D. Key now (go ahead to transmit)

2B-2-4.1 What is the procedural signal "CQ" used for?
   A. To notify another station that you will call on the quarter
hour
   B. To indicate that you are testing a new antenna and are not
listening for another station to answer
   C. To indicate that only the called station should transmit
   D. A general call when you are trying to make a contact

2B-2-4.2 What is the procedural signal "DE" used for?
   A. To mean "from" or "this is," as in "W9NGT de N9BTT"
   B. To indicate directional emissions from your antenna
   C. To indicate "received all correctly"
   D. To mean "calling any station"

2B-2-4.3 What is the procedural signal "K" used for?
   A. To mean "any station transmit"
   B. To mean "all received correctly"
   C. To mean "end of message"
   D. To mean "called station only transmit"

2B-2-5.1 What does the ++++R++++ in the RST signal report mean?
   A. The recovery of the signal
   B. The resonance of the CW tone
   C. The rate of signal flutter
   D. The readability of the signal

2B-2-5.2 What does the ++++S++++ in the RST signal report mean?
   A. The scintillation of a signal
   B. The strength of the signal
   C. The signal quality
   D. The speed of the CW transmission

2B-2-5.3 What does the ++++T++++ in the RST signal report mean?
   A. The tone of the signal
   B. The closeness of the signal to "telephone" quality
   C. The timing of the signal dot to dash ratio
   D. The tempo of the signal

2B-2-6.1  What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRS"?
   A. Interference from static
   B. Send more slowly
   C. Send RST report
   D. Radio station location is

2B-2-6.2 What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRT"?
   A. The correct time is
   B. Send RST report
   C. Stop sending
   D. Send more slowly

2B-2-6.3 What is one meaning of the Q signal "QTH"?
   A. Time here is
   B. My name is
   C. Stop sending
   D. My location is

2B-2-6.4 What is one meaning of the Q signal "QRZ," when it is
followed with a question mark?
   A. Who is calling me?
   B. What is your radio zone?
   C. What time zone are you in?
   D. Is this frequency in use?

2B-2-6.5  What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSL," when it is
followed with a question mark?
   A. Shall I send you my log?
   B. Can you acknowledge receipt (of my message)?
   C. Shall I send more slowly?
   D. Who is calling me?

2B-3-1.1 What is the format of a standard radiotelephone CQ call?
   A. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by
"this is," followed by your call sign at least two times
   B. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least five times, followed by
"this is," followed by your call sign once
   C. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three times, followed by "this
is," followed by your call sign three times
   D. Transmit the phrase "CQ" at least ten times, followed by
"this is," followed by your call sign once

2B-3-1.2 How should you answer a radiotelephone CQ call?
   A. Transmit the other station's call sign at least ten times,
followed by "this is," followed by your call sign at least twice
   B. Transmit the other station's call sign at least five times
phonetically, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign
at least once
   C. Transmit the other station's call sign at least three
times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign at least
five times phonetically
   D. Transmit the other station's call sign once, followed by
"this is," followed by your call sign given phonetically

2B-3-2.1 How is the call sign "KA3BGQ" stated in Standard
International Phonetics?
   A. Kilo Alfa Three Bravo Golf Quebec
   B. King America Three Bravo Golf Quebec
   C. Kilowatt Alfa Three Bravo George Queen
   D. Kilo America Three Baker Golf Quebec

2B-3-2.2 How is the call sign "WE5TZD" stated phonetically?
   A. Whiskey Echo Foxtrot Tango Zulu Delta
   B. Washington England Five Tokyo Zanzibar Denmark
   C. Whiskey Echo Five Tango Zulu Delta
   D. Whiskey Easy Five Tear Zebra Dog

2B-3-2.3 How is the call sign "KC4HRM" stated phonetically?
   A. Kilo Charlie Four Hotel Romeo Mike
   B. Kilowatt Charlie Four Hotel Roger Mexico
   C. Kentucky Canada Four Honolulu Radio Mexico
   D. King Charlie Foxtrot Hotel Roger Mary

2B-3-2.4 How is the call sign "AF6PSQ" stated phonetically?
   A. America Florida Six Portugal Spain Quebec
   B. Adam Frank Six Peter Sugar Queen
   C. Alfa Fox Sierra Papa Santiago Queen
   D. Alfa Foxtrot Six Papa Sierra Quebec

2B-3-2.5 How is the call sign "NB8LXG" stated phonetically?
   A. November Bravo Eight Lima Xray Golf
   B. Nancy Baker Eight Love Xray George
   C. Norway Boston Eight London Xray Germany
   D. November Bravo Eight London Xray Germany

2B-3-2.6 How is the call sign "KJ1UOI" stated phonetically?
   A. King John One Uncle Oboe Ida
   B. Kilowatt George India Uncle Oscar India
   C. Kilo Juliette One Uniform Oscar India
   D. Kentucky Juliette One United Ontario Indiana

2B-3-2.7 How is the call sign "WV2BPZ" stated phonetically?
   A. Whiskey Victor Two Bravo Papa Zulu
   B. Willie Victor Two Baker Papa Zebra
   C. Whiskey Victor Tango Bravo Papa Zulu
   D. Willie Virginia Two Boston Peter Zanzibar

2B-3-2.8 How is the call sign "NY3CTJ" stated phonetically?
   A. Norway Yokohama Three California Tokyo Japan
   B. Nancy Yankee Three Cat Texas Jackrabbit
   C. Norway Yesterday Three Charlie Texas Juliette
   D. November Yankee Three Charlie Tango Juliette

2B-3-2.9 How is the call sign "KG7DRV" stated phonetically?
   A. Kilo Golf Seven Denver Radio Venezuela
   B. Kilo Golf Seven Delta Romeo Victor
   C. King John Seven Dog Radio Victor
   D. Kilowatt George Seven Delta Romeo Video

2B-3-2.10 How is the call sign "WX9HKS" stated phonetically?
   A. Whiskey Xray Nine Hotel Kilo Sierra
   B. Willie Xray November Hotel King Sierra
   C. Washington Xray Nine Honolulu Kentucky Santiago
   D. Whiskey Xray Nine Henry King Sugar

2B-3-2.11 How is the call sign "AE0LQY" stated phonetically?
   A. Able Easy Zero Lima Quebec Yankee
   B. Arizona Equador Zero London Queen Yesterday
   C. Alfa Echo Zero Lima Quebec Yankee
   D. Able Easy Zero Love Queen Yoke

2B-4-1.1 What is the format of a standard RTTY CQ call?
   A. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three times, followed by "DE",
followed by your call sign two times
   B. Transmit the phrase "CQ" three to six times, followed by
"DE", followed by your call sign three times
   C. Transmit the phrase "CQ" ten times, followed by the
procedural signal "DE", followed by your call one time
   D. Transmit the phrase "CQ" continuously until someone answers
your call

2B-4-2.1 You receive an RTTY CQ call at 45 bauds. At what speed
should you respond?
   A. 22-1/2 bauds
   B. 45 bauds
   C. 90 bauds
   D. Any speed, since radioteletype systems adjust to any signal
rate

2B-5-1.1 What does the term ++++connected++++ mean in a packet-radio
link?
   A. A telephone link has been established between two amateurs
   B. An Amateur Radio message has reached the station for local
delivery
   C. The transmitting station is sending data specifically
addressed to the receiving station, and the receiving station is
acknowledging that the data has been received correctly
   D. The transmitting station and a receiving station are using
a certain digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until
they are finished

2B-5-1.2 What does the term ++++monitoring++++ mean on a frequency used
for packet radio?
   A. The FCC is copying all messages to determine their content
   B. A member of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Field
Operations Bureau is copying all messages to determine their
content
   C. The receiving station's video monitor is displaying all
messages intended for that station, and is acknowledging correct
receipt of the data
   D. The receiving station is displaying information that may
not be addressed to that station, and is not acknowledging
correct receipt of the data

2B-5-2.1 What is a ++++digipeater++++?
   A. A packet-radio station used to retransmit data that is
specifically addressed to be retransmitted by that station
   B. An Amateur Radio repeater designed to retransmit all audio
signals in a digital form
   C. An Amateur Radio repeater designed using only digital
electronics components
   D. A packet-radio station that retransmits any signals it
receives

2B-5-2.2 What is the meaning of the term ++++network++++ in packet radio?
   A. A system of telephone lines interconnecting packet-radio
stations to transfer data
   B. A method of interconnecting packet-radio stations so that
data can be transferred over long distances
   C. The interlaced wiring on a terminal-node-controller board
   D. The terminal-node-controller function that automatically
rejects another caller when the station is connected

2B-6-1.1 What is a good way to establish contact on a repeater?
   A. Give the call sign of the station you want to contact three
times
   B. Call the other operator by name and then give your call
sign three times
   C. Call the desired station and then identify your own station
   D. Say, "Breaker, breaker," and then give your call sign

2B-6-2.1 What is the main purpose of a repeater?
   A. To provide a station that makes local information available
24 hours a day
   B. To provide a means of linking amateur stations with the
telephone system
   C. To retransmit NOAA weather information during severe storm
warnings
   D. Repeaters extend the operating range of portable and mobile
stations

2B-6-3.1 What does it mean to say that a repeater has an ++++input++++
and an ++++output++++ frequency?
   A. The repeater receives on one frequency and transmits on
another
   B. All repeaters offer a choice of operating frequency, in
case one is busy
   C. One frequency is used to control repeater functions and the
other frequency is the one used to retransmit received signals
   D. Repeaters require an access code to be transmitted on one
frequency while your voice is transmitted on the other

2B-6-4.1 When should simplex operation be used instead of using a
repeater?
   A. Whenever greater communications reliability is needed
   B. Whenever a contact is possible without using a repeater
   C. Whenever you need someone to make an emergency telephone
call
   D. Whenever you are traveling and need some local information

2B-6-5.1 What is an ++++autopatch++++?
   A. A repeater feature that automatically selects the strongest
signal to be repeated
   B. An automatic system of connecting a mobile station to the
next repeater as it moves out of range of the first
   C. A device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls
from their portable or mobile stations
   D. A system that automatically locks other stations out of the
repeater when there is a QSO in progress

2B-6-5.2 What is the purpose of a repeater ++++time-out timer++++?
   A. It allows the repeater to have a rest period after heavy
use
   B. It logs repeater transmit time to determine when the
repeater mean time between failure rating is exceeded
   C. It limits repeater transmission time to no more than ten
minutes
   D. It limits repeater transmission time to no more than three
minutes

2C-1.1 What type of radio-wave propagation occurs when the signal
travels in a straight line from the transmitting antenna to the
receiving antenna?
   A. Line-of-sight propagation
   B. Straight-line propagation
   C. Knife-edge diffraction
   D. Tunnel propagation

2C-1.2 What path do radio waves usually follow from a
transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna at VHF and higher
frequencies?
   A. A bent path through the ionosphere
   B. A straight line
   C. A great circle path over either the north or south pole
   D. A circular path going either east or west from the
transmitter

2C-2.1 What type of propagation involves radio signals that
travel along the surface of the Earth?
   A. Sky-wave propagation
   B. Knife-edge diffraction
   C. E-layer propagation
   D. Ground-wave propagation

2C-2.2 What is the meaning of the term ++++ground-wave propagation++++?
   A. Signals that travel along seismic fault lines
   B. Signals that travel along the surface of the earth
   C. Signals that are radiated from a ground-plane antenna
   D. Signals that are radiated from a ground station to a
satellite

2C-2.3 Two amateur stations a few miles apart and separated by a
low hill blocking their line-of-sight path are communicating on
3.725 MHz. What type of propagation is probably being used?
   A. Tropospheric ducting
   B. Ground wave
   C. Meteor scatter
   D. Sporadic E

2C-2.4 When compared to sky-wave propagation, what is the usual
effective range of ground-wave propagation?
   A. Much smaller
   B. Much greater
   C. The same
   D. Dependent on the weather

2C-3.1 What type of propagation uses radio signals refracted back
to earth by the ionosphere?
   A. Sky wave
   B. Earth-moon-earth
   C. Ground wave
   D. Tropospheric

2C-3.2 What is the meaning of the term ++++sky-wave propagation++++?
   A. Signals reflected from the moon
   B. Signals refracted by the ionosphere
   C. Signals refracted by water-dense cloud formations
   D. Signals retransmitted by a repeater

2C-3.3 What does the term ++++skip++++ mean?
   A. Signals are reflected from the moon
   B. Signals are refracted by water-dense cloud formations
   C. Signals are retransmitted by repeaters
   D. Signals are refracted by the ionosphere

2C-3.4 What is the area of weak signals between the ranges of
ground waves and the first hop called?
   A. The skip zone
   B. The hysteresis zone
   C. The monitor zone
   D. The transequatorial zone

2C-3.5 What is the meaning of the term ++++skip zone++++?
   A. An area covered by skip propagation
   B. The area where a satellite comes close to the earth, and
skips off the ionosphere
   C. An area that is too far for ground-wave propagation, but
too close for skip propagation
   D. The area in the atmosphere that causes skip propagation

2C-3.6 What type of radio wave propagation makes it possible for
amateur stations to communicate long distances?
   A. Direct-inductive propagation
   B. Knife-edge diffraction
   C. Ground-wave propagation
   D. Sky-wave propagation

2C-4.1 How long is an average ++++sunspot cycle++++?
   A. 2 years
   B. 5 years
   C. 11 years
   D. 17 years

2C-4.2 What is the term used to describe the long-term variation
in the number of visible sunspots?
   A. The 11-year cycle
   B. The Solar magnetic flux cycle
   C. The hysteresis count
   D. The sunspot cycle

2C-5.1 What effect does the number of sunspots have on the
maximum usable frequency (MUF)?
   A. The more sunspots there are, the higher the MUF will be
   B. The more sunspots there are, the lower the MUF will be
   C. The MUF is equal to the square of the number of sunspots
   D. The number of sunspots effects the lowest usable frequency
(LUF) but not the MUF

2C-5.2 What effect does the number of sunspots have on the
ionization level in the atmosphere?
   A. The more sunspots there are, the lower the ionization level
will be
   B. The more sunspots there are, the higher the ionization
level will be
   C. The ionization level of the ionosphere is equal to the
square root of the number of sunspots
   D. The ionization level of the ionosphere is equal to the
square of the number of sunspots

2C-6.1 Why can a VHF or UHF radio signal that is transmitted
toward a mountain often be received at some distant point in a
different direction?
   A. You can never tell what direction a radio wave is traveling
in
   B. These radio signals are easily bent by the ionosphere
   C. These radio signals are easily reflected by objects in
their path
   D. These radio signals are sometimes scattered in the
ectosphere

2C-6.2 Why can the direction that a VHF or UHF radio signal is
traveling be changed if there is a tall building in the way?
   A. You can never tell what direction a radio wave is traveling
in
   B. These radio signals are easily bent by the ionosphere
   C. These radio signals are easily reflected by objects in
their path
   D. These radio signals are sometimes scattered in the
ectosphere

2D-1.1 How can you prevent the use of your amateur station by
unauthorized persons?
   A. Install a carrier-operated relay in the main power line
   B. Install a key-operated "ON/OFF" switch in the main power
line
   C. Post a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station
   D. Install AC line fuses in the main power line

2D-1.2 What is the purpose of a key-operated "ON/OFF" switch in
the main power line?
   A. To prevent the use of your station by unauthorized persons
   B. To provide an easy method for the FCC to put your station
off the air
   C. To prevent the power company from inadvertently turning off
your electricity during an emergency
   D. As a safety feature, to kill all power to the station in
the event of an emergency

2D-2.1 Why should all antenna and rotator cables be grounded when
an amateur station is not in use?
   A. To lock the antenna system in one position
   B. To avoid radio frequency interference
   C. To save electricity
   D. To protect the station and building from damage due to a
nearby lightning strike

2D-2.2 How can an antenna system be protected from damage caused
by a nearby lightning strike?
   A. Install a balun at the antenna feed point
   B. Install an RF choke in the feed line
   C. Ground all antennas when they are not in use
   D. Install a line fuse in the antenna wire

2D-2.3 How can amateur station equipment be protected from damage
caused by voltage induced in the power lines by a nearby
lightning strike?
   A. Use heavy insulation on the wiring
   B. Keep the equipment on constantly
   C. Disconnect the ground system
   D. Disconnect all equipment after use, either by unplugging or
by using a main disconnect switch

2D-2.4 For proper protection from lightning strikes, what
equipment should be grounded in an amateur station?
   A. The power supply primary
   B. All station equipment
   C. The feed line center conductors
   D. The AC power mains

2D-3.1 What is a convenient indoor grounding point for an amateur
station?
   A. A metallic cold water pipe
   B. PVC plumbing
   C. A window screen
   D. A natural gas pipe

2D-3.2 To protect against electrical shock hazards, what should
you connect the chassis of each piece of your equipment to?
   A. Insulated shock mounts
   B. The antenna
   C. A good ground connection
   D. A circuit breaker

2D-3.3 What type of material should a driven ground rod be made
of?
   A. Ceramic or other good insulator
   B. Copper or copper-clad steel
   C. Iron or steel
   D. Fiberglass

2D-3.4 What is the shortest ground rod you should consider
installing for your amateur station RF ground?
   A. 4 foot
   B. 6 foot
   C. 8 foot
   D. 10 foot

2D-4.1 What precautions should you take when working with 1270-
MHz waveguide?
   A. Make sure that the RF leakage filters are installed at both
ends of the waveguide
   B. Never look into the open end of a waveguide when RF is
applied
   C. Minimize the standing wave ratio before you test the
waveguide
   D. Never have both ends of the waveguide open at the same time
when RF is applied

2D-4.2 What precautions should you take when you mount a UHF
antenna in a permanent location?
   A. Make sure that no one can be near the antenna when you are
transmitting
   B. Make sure that the RF field screens are in place
   C. Make sure that the antenna is near the ground to maximize
directional effect
   D. Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna
feed point

2D-4.3 What precautions should you take before removing the
shielding on a UHF power amplifier?
   A. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna
   B. Make sure the feed line is properly grounded
   C. Make sure the amplifier cannot be accidentally energized
   D. Make sure that the RF leakage filters are connected

2D-4.4 Why should you use only good-quality, well-constructed
coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF antenna system?
   A. To minimize RF leakage
   B. To reduce parasitic oscillations
   C. To maximize the directional characteristics of your antenna
   D. To maximize the standing wave ratio of the antenna system

2D-4.5 Why should you be careful to position the antenna of your
220-MHz hand-held transceiver away from your head when you are
transmitting?
   A. To take advantage of the directional effect
   B. To minimize RF exposure
   C. To use your body to reflect the signal, improving the
directional characteristics of the antenna
   D. To minimize static discharges

2D-4.6 Which of the following types of radiation produce health
risks most like the risks produced by radio frequency radiation?
   A. Microwave oven radiation and ultraviolet radiation
   B. Microwave oven radiation and radiation from an electric
space heater
   C. Radiation from Uranium or Radium and ultraviolet radiation
   D. Sunlight and radiation from an electric space heater

2D-5.1  Why is there a switch that turns off the power to a high-
voltage power supply if the cabinet is opened?
   A. To prevent RF from escaping from the supply
   B. To prevent RF from entering the supply through the open
cabinet
   C. To provide a way to turn the power supply on and off
   D. To reduce the danger of electrical shock

2D-5.2  What purpose does a safety interlock on an amateur
transmitter serve?
   A. It reduces the danger that the operator will come in
contact with dangerous high voltages when the cabinet is opened
while the power is on
   B. It prevents the transmitter from being turned on
accidentally
   C. It prevents RF energy from leaking out of the transmitter
cabinet
   D. It provides a way for the station licensee to ensure that
only authorized operators can turn the transmitter on

2D-6.1 What type of safety equipment should you wear when you are
working at the top of an antenna tower?
   A. A grounding chain
   B. A reflective vest
   C. Loose clothing
   D. A carefully inspected safety belt

2D-6.2 Why should you wear a safety belt when you are working at
the top of an antenna tower?
   A. To provide a way to safely hold your tools so they don't
fall and injure someone on the ground
   B. To maintain a balanced load on the tower while you are
working
   C. To provide a way to safely bring tools up and down the
tower
   D. To prevent an accidental fall

2D-6.3 For safety purposes, how high should you locate all
portions of your horizontal wire antenna?
   A. High enough so that a person cannot touch them from the
ground
   B. Higher than chest level
   C. Above knee level
   D. Above electrical lines

2D-6.4 What type of safety equipment should you wear when you are
on the ground assisting someone who is working on an antenna
tower?
   A. A reflective vest
   B. A safety belt
   C. A grounding chain
   D. A hard hat

2D-6.5 Why should you wear a hard hat when you are on the ground
assisting someone who is working on an antenna tower?
   A. To avoid injury from tools dropped from the tower
   B. To provide an RF shield during antenna testing
   C. To avoid injury if the tower should accidentally collapse
   D. To avoid injury from walking into tower guy wires

2D-7-1.1 What accessory is used to measure standing wave ratio?
   A. An ohm meter
   B. An ammeter
   C. An SWR meter
   D. A current bridge

2D-7-1.2 What instrument is used to indicate the relative
impedance match between a transmitter and antenna?
   A. An ammeter
   B. An ohmmeter
   C. A voltmeter
   D. An SWR meter

2D-7-2.1 What does an SWR-meter reading of 1:1 indicate?
   A. An antenna designed for use on another frequency band is
probably connected
   B. An optimum impedance match has been attained
   C. No power is being transferred to the antenna
   D. An SWR meter never indicates 1:1 unless it is defective

2D-7-2.2 What does an SWR-meter reading of less than 1.5:1
indicate?
   A. An unacceptably low reading
   B. An unacceptably high reading
   C. An acceptable impedance match
   D. An antenna gain of 1.5

2D-7-2.3 What does an SWR-meter reading of 4:1 indicate?
   A. An unacceptably low reading
   B. An acceptable impedance match
   C. An antenna gain of 4
   D. An impedance mismatch, which is not acceptable; it
indicates problems with the antenna system

2D-7-2.4 What does an SWR-meter reading of 5:1 indicate?
   A. The antenna will make a 10-watt signal as strong as a 50-
watt signal
   B. Maximum power is being delivered to the antenna
   C. An unacceptable mismatch is indicated
   D. A very desirable impedance match has been attained

2D-7-3.1 What kind of SWR-meter reading may indicate poor
electrical contact between parts of an antenna system?
   A. An erratic reading
   B. An unusually low reading
   C. No reading at all
   D. A negative reading

2D-7-3.2 What does an unusually high SWR-meter reading indicate?
   A. That the antenna is not the correct length, or that there
is an open or shorted connection somewhere in the feed line
   B. That the signals arriving at the antenna are unusually
strong, indicating good radio conditions
   C. That the transmitter is producing more power than normal,
probably indicating that the final amplifier tubes or transistors
are about to go bad
   D. That there is an unusually large amount of solar white-
noise radiation, indicating very poor radio conditions

2D-7-3.3 The SWR-meter reading at the low-frequency end of an
amateur band is 2.5:1, and the SWR-meter reading at the high-
frequency end of the same band is 5:1. What does this indicate
about your antenna?
   A. The antenna is broadbanded
   B. The antenna is too long for operation on this band
   C. The antenna is too short for operation on this band
   D. The antenna has been optimized for operation on this band

2D-7-3.4 The SWR-meter reading at the low-frequency end of an
amateur band is 5:1, and the SWR-meter reading at the high-
frequency end of the same band is 2.5:1. What does this indicate
about your antenna?
   A. The antenna is broadbanded
   B. The antenna is too long for operation on this band
   C. The antenna is too short for operation on this band
   D. The antenna has been optimized for operation on this band

2D-8-1.1 What is meant by ++++receiver overload++++?
   A. Interference caused by transmitter harmonics
   B. Interference caused by overcrowded band conditions
   C. Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby
transmitter
   D. Interference caused by turning the receiver volume too high

2D-8-1.2 What is a likely indication that radio-frequency
interference to a receiver is caused by front-end overload?
   A. A low pass filter at the transmitter reduces interference
sharply
   B. The interference is independent of frequency
   C. A high pass filter at the receiver reduces interference
little or not at all
   D. Grounding the receiver makes the problem worse

2D-8-1.3 Your neighbor reports interference to his television
whenever you are transmitting from your amateur station. This
interference occurs regardless of your transmitter frequency.
What is likely to be the cause of the interference?
   A. Inadequate transmitter harmonic suppression
   B. Receiver VR tube discharge
   C. Receiver overload
   D. Incorrect antenna length

2D-8-1.4 What type of filter should be installed on a TV receiver
as the first step in preventing RF overload from an amateur HF
station transmission?
   A. Low pass
   B. High pass
   C. Band pass
   D. Notch

2D-8-2.1 What is meant by ++++harmonic radiation++++?
   A. Transmission of signals at whole number multiples of the
fundamental (desired) frequency
   B. Transmission of signals that include a superimposed 60-Hz
hum
   C. Transmission of signals caused by sympathetic vibrations
from a nearby transmitter
   D. Transmission of signals to produce a stimulated emission in
the air to enhance skip propagation

2D-8-2.2 Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station
undesirable?
   A. It will cause interference to other stations and may result
in out-of-band signal radiation
   B. It uses large amounts of electric power
   C. It will cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters
   D. It will produce stimulated emission in the air above the
transmitter, thus causing aurora

2D-8-2.3 What type of interference may radiate from a multi-band
antenna connected to an improperly tuned transmitter?
   A. Harmonic radiation
   B. Auroral distortion
   C. Parasitic excitation
   D. Intermodulation

2D-8-2.4 What is the purpose of shielding in a transmitter?
   A. It gives the low pass filter structural stability
   B. It enhances the microphonic tendencies of radiotelephone
transmitters
   C. It prevents unwanted RF radiation
   D. It helps maintain a sufficiently high operating temperature
in circuit components

2D-8-2.5 Your neighbor reports interference on one or two
channels of her television when you are transmitting from your
amateur station. This interference only occurs when you are
operating on 15 meters. What is likely to be the cause of the
interference?
   A. Excessive low-pass filtering on the transmitter
   B. Sporadic E de-ionization near your neighbor's TV antenna
   C. TV Receiver front-end overload
   D. Harmonic radiation from your transmitter

2D-8-2.6 What type of filter should be installed on an amateur
transmitter as the first step in reducing harmonic radiation?
   A. Key click filter
   B. Low pass filter
   C. High pass filter
   D. CW filter

2D-8-3.1 If you are notified that your amateur station is causing
television interference, what should you do first?
   A. Make sure that your amateur equipment is operating
properly, and that it does not cause interference to your own
television
   B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the
nearest FCC office for assistance
   C. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter output and a
low-pass filter at the antenna-input terminals of the TV
   D. Continue operating normally, since you have no legal
obligation to reduce or eliminate the interference

2D-8-3.2 Your neighbor informs you that you are causing
television interference, but you are sure your amateur equipment
is operating properly and you cause no interference to your own
TV. What should you do?
   A. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the
nearest FCC office for assistance
   B. Work with your neighbor to determine that you are actually
the cause of the interference
   C. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter output and a
low-pass filter at the antenna-input terminals of the TV
   D. Continue operating normally, since you have no legal
obligation to reduce or eliminate the interference

2E-1-1.1 Your receiver dial is calibrated in megahertz and shows
a signal at 1200 MHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated
in gigahertz show the signal?
   A. 1,200,000 GHz
   B. 12 GHz
   C. 1.2 GHz
   D. 0.0012 GHz

2E-1-2.1 Your receiver dial is calibrated in kilohertz and shows
a signal at 7125 kHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated
in megahertz show the signal?
   A. 0.007125 MHz
   B. 7.125 MHz
   C. 71.25 MHz
   D. 7,125,000 MHz

2E-1-2.2 Your receiver dial is calibrated in gigahertz and shows
a signal at 1.2 GHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated in
megahertz show the same signal?
   A. 1.2 MHz
   B. 12 MHz
   C. 120 MHz
   D. 1200 MHz

2E-1-3.1 Your receiver dial is calibrated in megahertz and shows
a signal at 3.525 MHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated
in kilohertz show the signal?
   A. 0.003525 kHz
   B. 3525 kHz
   C. 35.25 kHz
   D. 3,525,000 kHz

2E-1-3.2 Your receiver dial is calibrated in kilohertz and shows
a signal at 3725 kHz. At what frequency would a dial calibrated
in Hertz show the same signal?
   A. 3,725 Hz
   B. 3.725 Hz
   C. 37.25 Hz
   D. 3,725,000 Hz

2E-1-4.1 How long (in meters) is an antenna that is 400
centimeters long?
   A. 0.0004 meters
   B. 4 meters
   C. 40 meters
   D. 40,000 meters

2E-1-5.1 What reading will be displayed on a meter calibrated in
amperes when it is being used to measure a 3000-milliampere
current?
   A. 0.003 amperes
   B. 0.3 amperes
   C. 3 amperes
   D. 3,000,000 amperes

2E-1-5.2 What reading will be displayed on a meter calibrated in
volts when it is being used to measure a 3500-millivolt
potential?
   A. 350 volts
   B. 35 volts
   C. 3.5 volts
   D. 0.35 volts

2E-1-6.1 How many farads is 500,000 microfarads?
   A. 0.0005 farads
   B. 0.5 farads
   C. 500 farads
   D. 500,000,000 farads

2E-1-7.1 How many microfarads is 1,000,000 picofarads?
   A. 0.001 microfarads
   B. 1 microfarad
   C. 1,000 microfarads
   D. 1,000,000,000 microfarads

2E-2-1.1 What is the term used to describe the flow of electrons
in an electric circuit?
   A. Voltage
   B. Resistance
   C. Capacitance
   D. Current

2E-2-2.1 What is the basic unit of electric current?
   A. The volt
   B. The watt
   C. The ampere
   D. The ohm

2E-3-1.1 What supplies the force that will cause electrons to
flow through a circuit?
   A. Electromotive force, or voltage
   B. Magnetomotive force, or inductance
   C. Farad force, or capacitance
   D. Thermodynamic force, or entropy

2E-3-1.2 The pressure in a water pipe is comparable to what force
in an electrical circuit?
   A. Current
   B. Resistance
   C. Gravitation
   D. Voltage

2E-3-1.3 An electric circuit must connect to two terminals of a
voltage source. What are these two terminals called?
   A. The north and south poles
   B. The positive and neutral terminals
   C. The positive and negative terminals
   D. The entrance and exit terminals

2E-3-2.1 What is the basic unit of voltage?
   A. The volt
   B. The watt
   C. The ampere
   D. The ohm

2E-4.1 List at least three good electrical conductors.
   A. Copper, gold, mica
   B. Gold, silver, wood
   C. Gold, silver, aluminum
   D. Copper, aluminum, paper

2E-5.1 List at least four good electrical insulators.
   A. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain
   B. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain
   C. Paper, glass, air, aluminum
   D. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon

2E-6-1.1 There is a limit to the electric current that can pass
through any material. What is this current limiting called?
   A. Fusing
   B. Reactance
   C. Saturation
   D. Resistance

2E-6-1.2 What is an electrical component called that opposes
electron movement through a circuit?
   A. A resistor
   B. A reactor
   C. A fuse
   D. An oersted

2E-6-2.1 What is the basic unit of resistance?
   A. The volt
   B. The watt
   C. The ampere
   D. The ohm

2E-7.1 What electrical principle relates voltage, current and
resistance in an electric circuit?
   A. Ampere's Law
   B. Kirchhoff's Law
   C. Ohm's Law
   D. Tesla's Law

2E-7.2 There is a 2-amp current through a 50-ohm resistor. What
is the applied voltage?
   A. 0.04 volts
   B. 52 volts
   C. 100 volts
   D. 200 volts

2E-7.3 If 200 volts is applied to a 100-ohm resistor, what is the
current through the resistor?
   A. 0.5 amps
   B. 2 amps
   C. 50 amps
   D. 20000 amps

2E-7.4 There is a 3-amp current through a resistor and we know
that the applied voltage is 90 volts. What is the value of the
resistor?
   A. 0.03 ohms
   B. 10 ohms
   C. 30 ohms
   D. 2700 ohms

2E-8.1 What is the term used to describe the ability to do work?
   A. Voltage
   B. Power
   C. Inertia
   D. Energy

2E-8.2 What is converted to heat and light in an electric light
bulb?
   A. Electrical energy
   B. Electrical voltage
   C. Electrical power
   D. Electrical current

2E-9-1.1 What term is used to describe the rate of energy
consumption?
   A. Energy
   B. Current
   C. Power
   D. Voltage

2E-9-1.2 You have two lamps with different wattage light bulbs in
them. How can you determine which bulb uses electrical energy
faster?
   A. The bulb that operates from the higher voltage will consume
energy faster
   B. The physically larger bulb will consume energy faster
   C. The bulb with the higher wattage rating will consume energy
faster
   D. The bulb with the lower wattage rating will consume energy
faster

2E-9-2.1 What is the basic unit of electrical power?
   A. Ohm
   B. Watt
   C. Volt
   D. Ampere

2E-10.1 What is the term for an electrical circuit in which there
can be no current?
   A. A closed circuit
   B. A short circuit
   C. An open circuit
   D. A hyper circuit

2E-11.1 What is the term for a failure in an electrical circuit
that causes excessively high current?
   A. An open circuit
   B. A dead circuit
   C. A closed circuit
   D. A short circuit

2E-12-1.1 What is the term used to describe a current that flows
only in one direction?
   A. Alternating current
   B. Direct current
   C. Periodic current
   D. Pulsating current

2E-12-2.1 What is the term used to describe a current that flows
first in one direction, then in the opposite direction, over and
over?
   A. Alternating current
   B. Direct current
   C. Negative current
   D. Positive current

2E-12-3.1 What is the term for the number of complete cycles of
an alternating waveform that occur in one second?
   A. Pulse repetition rate
   B. Hertz
   C. Frequency per wavelength
   D. Frequency

2E-12-3.2 A certain AC signal makes 2000 complete cycles in one
second. What property of the signal does this number describe?
   A. The frequency of the signal
   B. The pulse repetition rate of the signal
   C. The wavelength of the signal
   D. The hertz per second of the signal

2E-12-3.3 What is the basic unit of frequency?
   A. The hertz
   B. The cycle
   C. The kilohertz
   D. The megahertz

2E-12-4.1 What range of frequencies are usually called ++++audio
frequencies++++?
   A. 0 to 20 Hz
   B. 20 to 20,000 Hz
   C. 200 to 200,000 Hz
   D. 10,000 to 30,000 Hz

2E-12-4.2 A signal at 725 Hz is in what frequency range?
   A. Audio frequency
   B. Intermediate frequency
   C. Microwave frequency
   D. Radio frequency

2E-12-4.3 Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
++++audio frequencies++++?
   A. Because the human ear rejects signals in this frequency
range
   B. Because the human ear responds to sounds in this frequency
range
   C. Because frequencies in this range are too low for a radio
to detect
   D. Because a radio converts signals in this range directly to
sounds the human ear responds to

2E-12-5.1 Signals above what frequency are usually called ++++radio-
frequency++++ signals?
   A. 20 Hz
   B. 2000 Hz
   C. 20,000 Hz
   D. 1,000,000 Hz

2E-12-5.2 A signal at 7125 kHz is in what frequency range?
   A. Audio frequency
   B. Radio frequency
   C. Hyper-frequency
   D. Super-high frequency

2E-13.1 What is the term for the distance an AC signal travels
during one complete cycle?
   A. Wave velocity
   B. Velocity factor
   C. Wavelength
   D. Wavelength per meter

2E-13.2 In the time it takes a certain radio signal to pass your
antenna, the leading edge of the wave travels 12 meters. What
property of the signal does this number refer to?
   A. The signal frequency
   B. The wave velocity
   C. The velocity factor
   D. The signal wavelength

2F-1.1 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a resistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-1.2 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a variable resistor or potentiometer [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-1.3 In diagram 2F-1, which component is a resistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-2.1 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a single-pole, single-throw switch [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-2.2 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a single-pole, double-throw switch [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-2.3 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a double-pole, double-throw switch [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-2.4 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a single-pole 5-position switch [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-2.5 In diagram 2F-2, which component is a switch [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-3.1 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a fuse [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-4.1 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a single-cell battery [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-4.2 What is the symbol used on schematic diagrams to represent
a multiple-cell battery [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-5.1 What is the symbol normally used to represent an earth-
ground connection on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-5.2 What is the symbol normally used to represent a chassis-
ground connection on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-5.3 In diagram 2F-5, which symbol represents a chassis ground
connection [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-5.4 In diagram 2F-5, which symbol represents an earth ground
connection [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-6.1 What is the symbol used to represent an antenna on
schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-7.1 What is the symbol used to represent an NPN bipolar
transistor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-7.2 What is the symbol used to represent a PNP bipolar
transistor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-7.3 In diagram 2F-7, which symbol represents a PNP bipolar
transistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-7.4 In diagram 2F-7, which symbol represents an NPN bipolar
transistor [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2F-8.1 What is the symbol used to represent a triode vacuum tube
on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2G-1-1.1 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A terminal-node controller
   B. An antenna switch
   C. A telegraph key
   D. A TR switch

2G-1-1.2  What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A microphone
   B. A receiver
   C. A transmitter
   D. An SWR meter

2G-1-1.3  What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A key click filter
   B. An antenna tuner
   C. A power supply
   D. A receiver

2G-1-1.4 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A transceiver
   B. A TR switch
   C. An antenna tuner
   D. A modem

2G-1-1.5 In block diagram 2G-1, which symbol represents an
antenna [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

2G-1-2.1 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A pi network
   B. An antenna switch
   C. A key click filter
   D. A mixer

2G-1-2.2 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A TR switch
   B. A variable frequency oscillator
   C. A linear amplifier
   D. A microphone

2G-1-2.3 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. An antenna switch
   B. An impedance-matching network
   C. A key click filter
   D. A terminal-node controller

2G-1-2.4 In block diagram 2G-1, if component 1 is a transceiver
and component 2 is an SWR meter, what is component 3
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A power supply
   B. A receiver
   C. A microphone
   D. An impedance matching device

2G-1-2.5 In block diagram 2G-1, if component 2 is an SWR meter
and component 3 is an impedance matching device, what is
component 1 [see graphics addendum]?
   A. A power supply
   B. An antenna
   C. An antenna switch
   D. A transceiver

2G-2.1 In an amateur station designed for Morse radiotelegraph
operation, what station accessory will you need to go with your
transmitter?
   A. A terminal-node controller
   B. A telegraph key
   C. An SWR meter
   D. An antenna switch

2G-2.2 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram of a Morse
telegraphy station [see graphics addendum]?
   A. A sidetone oscillator
   B. A microphone
   C. A telegraph key
   D. A DTMF keypad

2G-2.3 What station accessory do many amateurs use to help form
good Morse code characters?
   A. A sidetone oscillator
   B. A key-click filter
   C. An electronic keyer
   D. A DTMF keypad

2G-3.1 In an amateur station designed for radiotelephone
operation, what station accessory will you need to go with your
transmitter?
   A. A splatter filter
   B. A terminal-voice controller
   C. A receiver audio filter
   D. A microphone

2G-3.2 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram of a
radiotelephone station [see graphics addendum]?
   A. A splatter filter
   B. A terminal-voice controller
   C. A receiver audio filter
   D. A microphone

2G-4.1 In an amateur station designed for radioteletype
operation, what station accessories will you need to go with your
transmitter?
   A. A modem and a teleprinter or computer system
   B. A computer, a printer and a RTTY refresh unit
   C. A terminal-node controller
   D. A modem, a monitor and a DTMF keypad

2G-4.2 What is the unlabeled block (?) in this diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. An RS-232 interface
   B. SWR bridge
   C. Modem
   D. Terminal-network controller

2G-5.1 In a packet-radio station, what device connects between
the radio transceiver and the computer terminal?
   A. A terminal-node controller
   B. An RS-232 interface
   C. A terminal refresh unit
   D. A tactical network control system

2G-5.2 What is the unlabeled block (?) in the diagram of a
packet-radio station [see graphics addendum]?
   A. A terminal-node controller
   B. An RS-232 interface
   C. A terminal refresh unit
   D. A tactical network control system

2G-5.3 Where does a terminal-node controller connect in an
amateur packet-radio station?
   A. Between the antenna and the radio
   B. Between the computer and the monitor
   C. Between the computer or terminal and the radio
   D. Between the keyboard and the computer

2H-1-1.1 What keying method is used to transmit CW?
   A. Frequency-shift keying of a radio-frequency signal
   B. On/off keying of a radio-frequency signal
   C. Audio-frequency-shift keying of an oscillator tone
   D. On/off keying of an audio-frequency signal

2H-1-1.2 What emission type describes international Morse code
telegraphy messages?
   A. RTTY
   B. Image
   C. CW
   D. Phone

2H-1-2.1 What emission type describes narrow-band direct-printing
telegraphy emissions?
   A. RTTY
   B. Image
   C. CW
   D. Phone

2H-1-2.2 What keying method is used to transmit RTTY messages?
   A. Frequency-shift keying of a radio-frequency signal
   B. On/off keying of a radio-frequency signal
   C. Digital pulse-code keying of an unmodulated carrier
   D. On/off keying of an audio-frequency signal

2H-1-3.1 What emission type describes frequency-modulated voice
transmissions?
   A. FM phone
   B. Image
   C. CW
   D. Single-sideband phone

2H-1-4.1 What emission type describes single-sideband suppressed-
carrier (SSB) voice transmissions?
   A. FM phone
   B. Image
   C. CW
   D. Single-sideband phone

2H-2.1 What does the term ++++key click++++ mean?
   A. The mechanical noise caused by closing a straight key too
hard
   B. The clicking noise from an excessively square CW keyed
waveform
   C. The sound produced in a receiver from a CW signal faster
than 20 WPM
   D. The sound of a CW signal being copied on an AM receiver

2H-2.2 How can key clicks be eliminated?
   A. By reducing your keying speed to less than 20 WPM
   B. By increasing power to the maximum allowable level
   C. By using a power supply with better regulation
   D. By using a key-click filter

2H-3.1 What does the term ++++chirp++++ mean?
   A. A distortion in the receiver audio circuits
   B. A high-pitched audio tone transmitted with a CW signal
   C. A slight shift in oscillator frequency each time a CW
transmitter is keyed
   D. A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms
up

2H-3.2 What can be done to the power supply of a CW transmitter
to avoid chirp?
   A. Resonate the power supply filters
   B. Regulate the power supply output voltages
   C. Use a buffer amplifier between the transmitter output and
the feed line
   D. Hold the power supply current to a fixed value

2H-4.1 What is a common cause of superimposed hum?
   A. Using a nonresonant random-wire antenna
   B. Sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter
   C. Improper neutralization of the transmitter output stage
   D. A defective filter capacitor in the power supply

2H-4.2 What type of problem can a bad power-supply filter
capacitor cause in a transmitter or receiver?
   A. Sympathetic vibrations in nearby receivers
   B. A superimposed hum or buzzing sound
   C. Extreme changes in antenna resonance
   D. Imbalance in the mixers

2H-5.1 What is the 4th harmonic of a 7160-kHz signal?
   A. 28,640 kHz
   B. 35,800 kHz
   C. 28,160 kHz
   D. 1790 kHz

2H-5.2 You receive an FCC Notice of Violation stating that your
station was heard on 21,375 kHz. At the time listed on the
notice, you were operating on 7125 kHz. What is a possible cause
of this violation?
   A. Your transmitter has a defective power-supply filter
capacitor
   B. Your CW keying speed was excessively fast
   C. Your transmitter was radiating excess harmonic signals
   D. Your transmitter has a defective power-supply filter choke

2H-6.1 What may happen to body tissues that are exposed to large
amounts of UHF or microwave RF energy?
   A. The tissue may be damaged because of the heat produced
   B. The tissue may suddenly be frozen
   C. The tissue may be immediately destroyed because of the
Maxwell Effect
   D. The tissue may become less resistant to cosmic radiation

2H-6.2 What precaution should you take before working near a
high-gain UHF or microwave antenna (such as a parabolic, or dish
antenna)?
   A. Be certain the antenna is FCC type accepted
   B. Be certain the antenna and transmitter are properly
grounded
   C. Be certain the transmitter cannot be operated
   D. Be certain the antenna safety interlocks are in place

2H-6.3 You are installing a VHF or UHF mobile radio in your
vehicle. What is the best location to mount the antenna on the
vehicle to minimize any danger from RF exposure to the driver or
passengers?
   A. In the middle of the roof
   B. Along the top of the windshield
   C. On either front fender
   D. On the trunk lid

2H-7.1 You discover that your tube-type transmitter power
amplifier is radiating spurious emissions. What is the most
likely cause of this problem?
   A. Excessively fast keying speed
   B. Undermodulation
   C. Improper neutralization
   D. Tank-circuit current dip at resonance

2H-7.2 Your transmitter radiates signals outside the amateur band
where you are transmitting. What term describes this radiation?
   A. Off-frequency emissions
   B. Transmitter chirp
   C. Incidental radiation
   D. Spurious emissions

2H-7.3 What problem can occur if you operate your transmitter
without the cover and other shielding in place?
   A. Your transmitter can radiate spurious emissions
   B. Your transmitter may radiate a "chirpy" signal
   C. The final amplifier efficiency of your transmitter may
decrease
   D. You may cause splatter interference to other stations
operating on nearby frequencies

2H-7.4 What type of interference will you cause if you operate
your SSB transmitter with the microphone gain adjusted too high?
   A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in
your neighborhood
   B. You may cause splatter interference to other stations
operating on nearby frequencies
   C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around
your antenna
   D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor
in your rig

2H-7.5 What may happen if you adjust the microphone gain or
deviation control on your FM transmitter too high?
   A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in
your neighborhood
   B. You may cause interference to other stations operating on
nearby frequencies
   C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around
your antenna
   D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor
in your rig

2H-7.6 What type of interference can excessive amounts of speech
processing in your SSB transmitter cause?
   A. You may cause digital interference to computer equipment in
your neighborhood
   B. You may cause splatter interference to other stations
operating on nearby frequencies
   C. You may cause atmospheric interference in the air around
your antenna
   D. You may cause processor interference to the microprocessor
in your rig

2I-1.1 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-
wavelength dipole antenna for 3725 kHz?
   A. 126 ft
   B. 81 ft
   C. 63 ft
   D. 40 ft

2I-1.2 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-
wavelength dipole antenna for 7125 kHz?
   A. 84 ft
   B. 42 ft
   C. 33 ft
   D. 66 ft

2I-1.3 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-
wavelength dipole antenna for 21,125 kHz?
   A. 44 ft
   B. 28 ft
   C. 22 ft
   D. 14 ft

2I-1.4 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-
wavelength dipole antenna for 28,150 kHz?
   A. 22 ft
   B. 11 ft
   C. 17 ft
   D. 34 ft

2I-1.5 How is the approximate length (in feet) of a half-
wavelength dipole antenna calculated?
   A. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in
the formula: 150 / f (in MHz)
   B. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in
the formula: 234 / f (in MHz)
   C. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in
the formula: 300 / f (in MHz)
  D. By substituting the desired operating frequency for f in the
formula: 468 / f (in MHz)

2I-2.1 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-
wavelength vertical antenna for 3725 kHz?
   A. 20 ft
   B. 32 ft
   C. 40 ft
   D. 63 ft

2I-2.2 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-
wavelength vertical antenna for 7125 kHz?
   A. 11 ft
   B. 16 ft
   C. 21 ft
   D. 33 ft

2I-2.3 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-
wavelength vertical antenna for 21,125 kHz?
   A. 7 ft
   B. 11 ft
   C. 14 ft
   D. 22 ft

2I-2.4 What is the approximate length (in feet) of a quarter-
wavelength vertical antenna for 28,150 kHz?
   A. 5 ft
   B. 8 ft
   C. 11 ft
   D. 17 ft

2I-2.5 When a vertical antenna is lengthened, what happens to its
resonant frequency?
   A. It decreases
   B. It increases
   C. It stays the same
   D. It doubles

2I-3.1 Why do many amateurs use a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna
rather than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for their VHF or
UHF mobile stations?
   A. A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power than a 1/4-
wavelength antenna
   B. A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain than a 1/4-
wavelength antenna
   C. A 5/8-wavelength antenna exhibits less corona loss than a
1/4-wavelength antenna
   D. A 5/8-wavelength antenna looks more like a CB antenna, so
it does not attract as much attention as a 1/4-wavelength antenna

2I-3.2 What type of radiation pattern is produced by a 5/8-
wavelength vertical antenna?
   A. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated
in two opposite directions
   B. A pattern with the transmitted signal going equally in all
compass directions, with most of the radiation going high above
the horizon
   C. A pattern with the transmitted signal going equally in all
compass directions, with most of the radiation going close to the
horizon
   D. A pattern with more of the transmitted signal concentrated
in one direction than in other directions

2I-4-1.1 What type of antenna produces a radiation pattern with
more of the transmitted signal concentrated in a particular
direction than in other directions?
   A. A dipole antenna
   B. A vertical antenna
   C. An isotropic antenna
   D. A beam antenna

2I-4-1.2 What type of radiation pattern is produced by a Yagi
antenna?
   A. A pattern with the transmitted signal spread out equally in
all compass directions
   B. A pattern with more of the transmitted signal concentrated
in one direction than in other directions
   C. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated
in two opposite directions
   D. A pattern with most of the transmitted signal concentrated
at high radiation angles

2I-4-1.3 Approximately how long (in wavelengths) is the driven
element of a Yagi antenna?
   A. 1/4 wavelength
   B. 1/3 wavelength
   C. 1/2 wavelength
   D. 1 wavelength

2I-4-2.1 On the Yagi antenna shown in Figure 2I-4, what is the
name of section B [see graphics addendum]?
   A. Director
   B. Reflector
   C. Boom
   D. Driven element

2I-4-2.2 On the Yagi antenna shown in Figure 2I-4, what is the
name of section C [see graphics addendum]?
   A. Director
   B. Reflector
   C. Boom
   D. Driven element

2I-4-2.3 On the Yagi antenna shown in Figure 2I-4, what is the
name of section A [see graphics addendum]?
   A. Director
   B. Reflector
   C. Boom
   D. Driven element

2I-4-2.4 What are the names of the elements in a 3-element Yagi
antenna?
   A. Reflector, driven element and director
   B. Boom, mast and reflector
   C. Reflector, base and radiator
   D. Driven element, trap and feed line

2I-5.1 How should the antenna on a hand-held transceiver be
positioned while you are transmitting?
   A. Away from your head and away from others standing nearby
   B. Pointed in the general direction of the repeater or other
station you are transmitting to
   C. Pointed in a general direction 90 degrees away from the
repeater or other station you are transmitting to
   D. With the top of the antenna angled down slightly to take
the most advantage of ground reflections

2I-5.2 Why should you always locate your antennas so that no one
can come in contact with them while you are transmitting?
   A. Such contact can detune the antenna, causing television
interference
   B. To prevent RF burns and excessive exposure to RF energy
   C. The antenna is more likely to radiate harmonics when it is
touched
   D. Such contact may reflect the transmitted signal back to the
transmitter, damaging the final amplifier

2I-5.3 You are going to purchase a new antenna for your VHF or
UHF hand-held radio. Which type of antenna is the best choice to
produce a radiation pattern that will be least hazardous to your
face and eyes?
   A. A 1/8-wavelength whip
   B. A 7/8-wavelength whip
   C. A 1/2-wavelength whip
   D. A short, helically wound, flexible antenna

2I-6.1 What is a ++++coaxial cable++++?
   A. Two parallel conductors encased along the edges of a flat
plastic ribbon
   B. Two parallel conductors held at a fixed distance from each
other by insulating rods
   C. Two conductors twisted around each other in a double spiral
   D. A center conductor encased in insulating material which is
covered by a conducting sleeve or shield

2I-6.2 What kind of antenna feed line is constructed of a center
conductor encased in insulation which is then covered by an outer
conducting shield and weatherproof jacket?
   A. Twin lead
   B. Coaxial cable
   C. Open-wire feed line
   D. Wave guide

2I-6.3 What are some advantages of using coaxial cable as an
antenna feed line?
   A. It is easy to make at home, and it has a characteristic
impedance in the range of most common amateur antennas
   B. It is weatherproof, and it has a characteristic impedance
in the range of most common amateur antennas
   C. It can be operated at a higher SWR than twin lead, and it
is weatherproof
   D. It is unaffected by nearby metallic objects, and has a
characteristic impedance that is higher than twin lead

2I-6.4 What commonly-available antenna feed line can be buried
directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects?
   A. Twin lead
   B. Coaxial cable
   C. Parallel conductor
   D. Twisted pair

2I-6.5 When an antenna feed line must be located near grounded
metal objects, which commonly-available feed line should be used?
   A. Twisted pair
   B. Twin lead
   C. Coaxial cable
   D. Ladder-line

2I-7.1 What is parallel-conductor feed line?
   A. Two conductors twisted around each other in a double spiral
   B. Two parallel conductors held a uniform distance apart by
insulating material
   C. A conductor encased in insulating material which is then
covered by a conducting shield and a weatherproof jacket
   D. A metallic pipe whose diameter is equal to or slightly
greater than the wavelength of the signal being carried

2I-7.2 How can ++++TV-type twin lead++++ be used as a feed line?
   A. By carefully running the feed line parallel to a metal post
to ensure self resonance
   B. TV-type twin lead cannot be used in an amateur station
   C. By installing an impedance-matching network between the
transmitter and feed line
   D. By using a high-power amplifier and installing a power
attenuator between the transmitter and feed line

2I-7.3 What are some advantages of using parallel-conductor feed
line?
   A. It has a lower characteristic impedance than coaxial cable,
and will operate at a higher SWR than coaxial cable
   B. It will operate at a higher SWR than coaxial cable, and it
is unaffected by nearby metal objects
   C. It has a lower characteristic impedance than coaxial cable,
and has less loss than coaxial cable
   D. It will operate at higher SWR than coaxial cable and it has
less loss than coaxial cable

2I-7.4 What are some disadvantages of using parallel-conductor
feed line?
   A. It is affected by nearby metallic objects, and it has a
characteristic impedance that is too high for direct connection
to most amateur transmitters
   B. It is more difficult to make at home than coaxial cable and
it cannot be operated at a high SWR
   C. It is affected by nearby metallic objects, and it cannot
handle the power output of a typical amateur transmitter
   D. It has a characteristic impedance that is too high for
direct connection to most amateur transmitters, and it will
operate at a high SWR

2I-7.5 What kind of antenna feed line is constructed of two
conductors maintained a uniform distance apart by insulated
spreaders?
   A. Coaxial cable
   B. Ladder-line open conductor line
   C. Twin lead in a plastic ribbon
   D. Twisted pair

2I-8.1 A certain antenna has a feed-point impedance of 35 ohms.
You want to use a 50-ohm-impedance coaxial cable to feed this
antenna. What type of device will you need to connect between the
antenna and the feed line?
   A. A balun
   B. An SWR bridge
   C. An impedance matching device
   D. A low-pass filter

2I-8.2 A certain antenna system has an impedance of 1000 ohms on
one band. What must you use to connect this antenna system to the
50-ohm output on your transmitter?
   A. A balun
   B. An SWR bridge
   C. An impedance matching device
   D. A low-pass filter

2I-9.1 The word ++++balun++++ is a contraction for what phrase?
   A. Balanced-antenna-lobe use network
   B. Broadband-amplifier linearly unregulated
   C. Balanced unmodulator
   D. Balanced to unbalanced

2I-9.2 Where would you install a balun if you wanted to feed your
dipole antenna with 450-ohm parallel-conductor feed line?
   A. At the transmitter end of the feed line
   B. At the antenna feed point
   C. In only one conductor of the feed line
   D. From one conductor of the feed line to ground

2I-9.3 Where might you install a balun if you wanted to feed your
dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable?
   A. You might install a balun at the antenna feed point
   B. You might install a balun at the transmitter output
   C. You might install a balun 1/2 wavelength from the
transmitter
   D. You might install baluns in the middle of each side of the
dipole

2I-10-1.1 A four-element Yagi antenna is mounted with its
elements parallel to the ground. A signal produced by this
antenna will have what type of polarization?
   A. Broadside polarization
   B. Circular polarization
   C. Horizontal polarization
   D. Vertical polarization

2I-11-1.1 A four-element Yagi antenna is mounted with its
elements perpendicular to the ground. A signal produced by this
antenna will have what type of polarization?
   A. Broadside polarization
   B. Circular polarization
   C. Horizontal polarization
   D. Vertical polarization